Give scientific reasons : The human male never passes on the gene for haemophilia to his son.
The gene for haemophilia is present on $X$-chromosome. $A$ male has only one $X$-chromosome which he receives from his mother and $Y$-chromosome from father. The human male passes the $\mathrm{X}$ chromosome to his daughters but not to the male progeny (son).
If a normal women marries a colourblind man
Haemophilia $A$ is due to the absence of
Which one is the incorrect statement with regard to the importance of pedigree analysis?
In which of the following colourblindness is inherited