If $A =$ [$x:x$ is a multiple of $3$] and $B =$ [$x:x$ is a multiple of $5$], then $A -B$ is ($\bar A$ means complement of $A$)

Is it true that for any sets $\mathrm{A}$ and $\mathrm{B}, P(A) \cup P(B)=P(A \cup B) ?$ Justify your answer.

Let $V =\{a, e, i, o, u\}$ and $B =\{a, i, k, u\} .$ Find $V - B$ and $B - V$

If $A$ and $B$ are disjoint, then $n(A \cup B)$ is equal to

If $A=\{3,5,7,9,11\}, B=\{7,9,11,13\}, C=\{11,13,15\}$ and $D=\{15,17\} ;$ find

$B \cap D$

If $A=\{x \in R:|x|<2\}$ and $B=\{x \in R:|x-2| \geq 3\}$ then