If overrightarrow A times overrightarrow | vedclass

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Question

(c) We know that $\overrightarrow A 	imes \overrightarrow B = - (\overrightarrow B 	imes \overrightarrow A )$ because the angle between these two is

Vedclass · Accepted Answer

$\pi$

Vedclass · Answer

(c) We know that $\overrightarrow A 	imes \overrightarrow B = - (\overrightarrow B 	imes \overrightarrow A )$ because the angle between these two is always $90^&deg;$.

But if the angle between $\overrightarrow A $ and $\overrightarrow B $ is $0^&deg;$. Then $\overrightarrow A 	imes \overrightarrow B = \overrightarrow B 	imes \overrightarrow A = 0$.

If $\overrightarrow A \times \overrightarrow B=\overrightarrow B \times \overrightarrow A$ then the angle between $\overrightarrow A$ and $\overrightarrow B$ is

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