Which of the following statement is true
$ \sim (p \leftrightarrow \sim q)$ is tautology
$ \sim (p \leftrightarrow \sim q)$ is equivalent to $p \leftrightarrow q$
$(\,p\, \wedge \, \sim q)$ is a fallacy
$(\,p\, \wedge \, \sim q)\, \wedge \,( \sim p\, \wedge \,q)$ is a tautology
Let $\mathrm{A}, \mathrm{B}, \mathrm{C}$ and $\mathrm{D}$ be four non-empty sets. The contrapositive statement of "If $\mathrm{A} \subseteq \mathrm{B}$ and $\mathrm{B} \subseteq \mathrm{D},$ then $\mathrm{A} \subseteq \mathrm{C}^{\prime \prime}$ is
The conditional $(p \wedge q) \Rightarrow p$ is :-
Which of the following statements is a tautology?
$\left(p^{\wedge} r\right) \Leftrightarrow\left(p^{\wedge}(\sim q)\right)$ is equivalent to $(\sim p)$ when $r$ is.
The statment $ \sim \left( {p \leftrightarrow \sim q} \right)$ is