Consider $f (x) = | 1 - x | \,;\,1 \le x \le 2 $ and $g (x) = f (x) + b sin\,\frac{\pi }{2}\,x$, $1 \le x \le 2$ then which of the following is correct ?
Consider $f (x) = | 1 - x | \,;\,1 \le x \le 2 $ and $g (x) = f (x) + b sin\,\frac{\pi }{2}\,x$, $1 \le x \le 2$ then which of the following is correct ?
- A
Rolles theorem is applicable to both $f, g$ and $b =\frac{3}{2}\,$
- B
$LMVT$ is not applicable to $f$ and Rolles theorem if applicable to $g$ with $b =\frac{1}{2}\,$
- C
$LMVT$ is applicable to $f$ and Rolles theorem is applicable to $g$ with $b = 1$
- D
Rolles theorem is not applicable to both $f, g$ for any real $b.$
Similar Questions
Consider a quadratic equation $ax^2 + bx + c = 0,$ where $2a + 3b + 6c = 0$ and let $g(x) = a\frac{{{x^3}}}{3} + b\frac{{{x^2}}}{2} + cx.$
Statement $1:$ The quadratic equation has at least one root in the interval $(0, 1).$
Statement $2:$ The Rolle's theorem is applicable to function $g(x)$ on the interval $[0, 1 ].$
Consider a quadratic equation $ax^2 + bx + c = 0,$ where $2a + 3b + 6c = 0$ and let $g(x) = a\frac{{{x^3}}}{3} + b\frac{{{x^2}}}{2} + cx.$
Statement $1:$ The quadratic equation has at least one root in the interval $(0, 1).$
Statement $2:$ The Rolle's theorem is applicable to function $g(x)$ on the interval $[0, 1 ].$
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