If $A, B$ and $C$ are non-empty sets, then $(A -B) \cup (B -A)$ equals
$(A \cup B) -B$
$A -(A \cap B)$
$(A \cup B) -(A \cap B)$
$(A \cap B) \cup (A \cup B)$
Is it true that for any sets $\mathrm{A}$ and $\mathrm{B}, P(A) \cup P(B)=P(A \cup B) ?$ Justify your answer.
If $A=\{3,5,7,9,11\}, B=\{7,9,11,13\}, C=\{11,13,15\}$ and $D=\{15,17\} ;$ find
$A \cap \left( {B \cup C} \right)$
If $A$ and $B$ are disjoint, then $n(A \cup B)$ is equal to
Let $A = \{ (x,\,y):y = {e^x},\,x \in R\} $, $B = \{ (x,\,y):y = {e^{ - x}},\,x \in R\} .$ Then
Using that for any sets $\mathrm{A}$ and $\mathrm{B},$
$A \cup(A \cap B)=A$