Let $A$ and $B$ be two sets. Then

Is it true that for any sets $\mathrm{A}$ and $\mathrm{B}, P(A) \cup P(B)=P(A \cup B) ?$ Justify your answer.

If the sets $A$ and $B$ are defined as $A = \{ (x,\,y):y = {e^x},\,x \in R\} $; $B = \{ (x,\,y):y = x,\,x \in R\} ,$ then

If $A=\{3,5,7,9,11\}, B=\{7,9,11,13\}, C=\{11,13,15\}$ and $D=\{15,17\} ;$ find

$A \cap D$

If $A=\{3,6,9,12,15,18,21\}, B=\{4,8,12,16,20\},$ $C=\{2,4,6,8,10,12,14,16\}, D=\{5,10,15,20\} ;$ find

$C-B$