The statement (p Rightarrow q) vee(p Rightarr | vedclass

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Question

$( p \rightarrow q ) \vee( p \rightarrow r )$

$(\sim p \vee q ) \vee(\sim p \vee r )$

$=\sim p \vee( q \vee r )$

$= p \rightarrow( q \vee r )

Vedclass · Accepted Answer

$(\sim q) \Rightarrow((\sim r) \vee p)$

Vedclass · Answer

$( p \rightarrow q ) \vee( p \rightarrow r )$

$(\sim p \vee q ) \vee(\sim p \vee r )$

$=\sim p \vee( q \vee r )$

$= p \rightarrow( q \vee r ) \equiv(3)$ is true.

$(1)$ $( p \wedge \sim r ) \rightarrow q$

$\sim( p \wedge \sim r ) \vee q =(\sim p \vee r ) \vee q$

$=\sim p \vee( r \vee q )= p \rightarrow( q \vee r )$

$(4)(p \wedge \sim q) \rightarrow r=p \rightarrow(q \vee r)$

The statement $(p \Rightarrow q) \vee(p \Rightarrow r)$ is NOT equivalent to.

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