Which one of the following, statements is not a tautology
$\left( {p \vee q} \right) \to \left( {p \vee \left( { \sim q} \right)} \right)$
$\left( {p \vee q} \right) \to p$
$p \to \left( {p \vee q} \right)$
$\left( {p \wedge q} \right) \to \left( { \sim p} \right) \vee q$
Let $F_{1}(A, B, C)=(A \wedge \sim B) \vee[\sim C \wedge(A \vee B)] \vee \sim A$ and $F _{2}( A , B )=( A \vee B ) \vee( B \rightarrow \sim A )$ be two logical expressions. Then ...... .
Which statement given below is tautology ?
The converse of the statement "If $p < q$, then $p -x < q -x"$ is -
Given the following two statements :
$\left( S _{1}\right):( q \vee p ) \rightarrow( p \leftrightarrow \sim q )$ is a tautology.
$\left( S _{2}\right): \sim q \wedge(\sim p \leftrightarrow q )$ is a fallacy.
Then
The statement $( p \rightarrow( q \rightarrow p )) \rightarrow( p \rightarrow( p \vee q ))$ is